下学期期中质量检查
七年级英语试卷
（考试时间：90分钟 满分：100分）
评卷 人 一、听力测试 (共20分)
（一） 听句子，选择与句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读一遍。（每小题1分，共4分）
A B C D
1. 2. 3. 4.
（二） 听句子，选择正确的答语。每个句子读一遍。（每小题1分，共6分）
( ) 5. A. No, he can’t. B. No, he doesn’t. C. Yes, he can.
( ) 6. A. It takes about 15minutes. B. I ride my bike. C. It’s only about 2 kilometers.
( ) 7. A. Yes, I can. B. Yes, I am. C. No, I don’t.
( ) 8. A. They’re very cute. B. They’re lazy. C. They’re from South Africa.
( ) 9. A. Yes, I am B. No, I don’t. C. Yes, I do.
( ) 10. A. It takes her 10 minutes. B. She takes the bus. C. They walk. （三）听对话，选择正确的答案。你将听到五段对话及五个问题。每段对话及问题读两遍。 （每小题1分，共5分）
( ) 11. A. At 630. B. At 640. C. At 730.
( ) 12. A. He takes the subway. B. He takes the train. C. He takes the bus. ( ) 13. A. Yes, he does. B. Yes, he can. C. No, he doesn’t. ( ) 14. A. In the dining hall. B. In the classroom. C. At home. ( ) 15. A. Music club. B. English club. C. Chess club. （四） 听短文，选择正确的答案。短文读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分） ( ) 16. Where is Jim from?
A. England. B. China. C. Beijing. ( ) 17. How old is ate?
A. Only thirteen. B. Only ten. C. Only twelve. ( ) 18. What club does ate want to join?
A. Chess club. B. Chinese club. C. Music club. ( ) 19. Who is ate’s guitar teacher?
A. James. B. Jim. C. Mr. Green. ( ) 20. When does ate learn to play guitar?
A. On Saturdays. B. On Sundays. C. On Thursdays. 得 评卷 分 人
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题目 得分 得分 一 二 三 四 五 六 七 八 九 十 总分 计分人 核分人
二、辨音（每小题1分，共5分）
从下列各组单词中选出一个划线部分读音与其它三个不同的单词，并将其标号填入题前的 括号内。
( ) 21. A. head B. clean C. sweater D. bread ( ) 22. A. computer B. bus C. number D. club
( ) 23. A. dishes B. places C. bikes D. buses ( ) 24. A. about B. group C. found D. sound ( ) 25. A. noodle B. zoo C. school D. good 得 评卷 分 人 三、单项选择 选出最佳选项，并将其标号填入题前的括号内。(每小题1分，共15分)
( ) 26. You’re good ________ telling stories. You can join the story telling club.
A. to B. for C. at D. with
( ) 27. — do they have dinner? —At about 600 pm.
A. When B. Where C. What D. How
( ) 28. I’m in the school club. I can play the piano. I can sing and dance, too.
A. English B. sports C. chess D. music
( ) 29. Rick likes playing soccer, but his brother likes playing violin.
A. a, an B. an, the C. /, the D. the, /
( ) 30. — Where is Mr. Jackson?
— He ______ in the park. He ______ there every Sunday afternoon. A. walks; walks B. walks; walking C. is walking; walks D. is walking; is walking
( ) 31. — _______ is it from your home to school?
— I’m not sure…about 10 kilometers?
A. How long B. How far C. How D. When
( ) 32. — Oh, Mom. I’m tired（疲倦的）. I want to ________. — All right, my dear!
A. get up B. go to bed C. go to work D. go there
( ) 33. — Can Molly _______? — Yes. Here are some of her pictures.
A. swim B. show C. sing D. draw ( ) 34. — _________do you want to join the English blub?
— Because I like to speak English.
A. What B. Where C. Why D. When
( ) 35. — Do you want to join me for dinner? We can eat out. — Yeah, I’d love to.
— Let’s meet ________ my home first. Come _________ half past six.
A. at; at B. in; at C. in; in D. at; to ( ) 36. I don’t have a sister _______ a brother. There is only one child in my family. A. and B. or C. either D. but ( ) 37. The dog is very ______. It often helps me do things.
A. shy B. small C. scary D. clever
( ) 38. — Will you get there by _________bus? — No, I’ll take ______ taxi.
A. a, the B. /, a C. /, / D. the, a
( ) 39. — Let’s go to the zoo to see the elephants this weekend. — ________.
A. Good luck B. Thank you C. That sounds good
D. Yes, please
( ) 40. — How do you get to school?
— I get to school by bike, but I go to school on foot today
A. usually B. always C. sometimes D. never
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得分 评卷人 四、完形填空 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的选项中选出最佳答案，并
将其标号填在题前的括号内。（每小题1分，共10分）
Sandra is a girl of 13. She goes to school five days a 41 . She has many 42 at school. She has math, English, Chinese, history, music, art… Of all of them, Sandra’s favorite is 43 . She thinks it is very great. Sandra often plays the 44 at school, but she wants to have one of her own(自己的)at her home. So 45 her birthday, her parents 46 her a new piano as a gift. Sandra is very 47 . She says, “I want to learn 48 about music, Mom.” Her mother says, “You may 49 a music club.” “O, Mom. Thank you. I’ll go and find a music club tomorrow.”
Sandra want to be a 50 in the future(将).
( ) 41. A. year B. month C. half a month D. week ( ) 42. A. books B. clothes C. classes D. photos
( ) 43. A. math B. music C. English D. Chinese ( ) 44. A. piano B. CD C. drums D. guitar ( ) 45. A. in B. on C. at D. to
( ) 46. A. show B. sell C. buy D. keep ( ) 47. A. happy B. interesting C. sad D. funny ( ) 48. A. little B. many C. one D. more ( ) 49. A. take B. come C. join D. go ( ) 50. A. runner B. musician C. worker D. teacher 得 评卷 分 人 五、阅读理解 根据短文内容, 选择最佳答案。（每小题1分，共10分）
A Rule Two Rule One Here are the rules for Emily. 1. You can come into the room only with 1. You must get up before 630 a.m. your teacher. 2. Don’t listen to music. 2. Don’t eat or drink in the room. 3. Don’t talk loudly on the phone. 3. Don ’t listen to music. 4. Go to bed by 1000 p.m. 4. Be quiet. Don’t talk to each other. 5. You can’t meet friends if you finish your homework. 5.Turn off all the computers and close 6. Clean your bedroom yourself. windows after class. ( ) 51. In the two rules, ________ isn’t be allowed(被允许). A. eating or drinking B. listening to music
C. meeting friends D. coming into the room
( ) 52. When does Emily have to go to bed?
A. After 1000 p.m. B. Before 630 p.m. C. By 1000 p.m. D. By 900 p.m. ( ) 53. Rule One may be for a __________.
A. computer room B. classroom C. bedroom D. dining room ( ) 54. If Emily finishes her homework, she can ________.
A. listen to music B. talk loudly on the phone
C. get up after 630 a.m.. D. meet her friends
( ) 55. Which of the following is not true?
A. You have to be quiet when you have a computer class. B. Emily’s parents clean her bedroom.
C. Students can’t go into the room if there is no teacher. D. Rule Two is a family rule.
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B
Do you know Expo pandas（世博大熊猫）? They’re pandas from Sichuan. They came to Shanghai in January, 2010. They’re very happy to be here. Let me tell you about their life. At seven o’clock, they get up. They often take exercises before breakfast. Do you know what they eat for breakfast? Some fruits and milk. Then it’s time for them to play. They like playing together. After that they usually sleep for two hours. At three o’clock in the afternoon they need to eat something. The food is their favourite—bamboo. The pandas are very healthy. Many people come to see them. They’re the best wishes for Shanghai Expo. ( ) 56. Where are the Expo pandas from?
A. Shanghai. B. Sichuan. C. Beijing. D. Gansu.
( ) 57. Before breakfast, what do the pandas do?
A. Take exercises. B. Play together. C. Eat something. D. Play
again.
( ) 58. How long do the pandas sleep in the daytime(白天)？
A. Three hours. B. Two hours. C. Seven hours. D. Ten hours. ( ) 59. What does the underlined(划线的) word “bamboo” mean in Chinese?
A. 水果 B. 蔬菜 C. 竹子 D. 牛奶
( ) 60. Which of the following is not true? A. The pandas like bamboo best.
B. The pandas are very healthy in Shanghai.
C. Many people come to Shanghai to see Expo pandas.
D. The pandas are not very happy to be in Shanghai. 得 评卷 分 人 六、补全对话 根据对话情景，从方框中选择适当的句子完成对话，并将其标号填在题号后的横线上。
（每小题1分，共5分） A Let’s see the pandas. B 61 ( )
A. I don’t like lions. A Because they’re kind of interesting.
B. Why do you like them? B 62 ( )
C. Because they’re A They’re from China.
really scary. B Well, 63 ( )
D. Where are they from? A Why do you like them?
E. I like koalas. B Because they’re very cute and they’re from Australia.
A 64 ( )
B Why don’t you like them? A 65 ( )
评卷 人 七、单词拼写 根据句子中所给的中文提示或单词首字母, 填写正确的单词。（每小题1分，共10分） 66. He can s English very well.
67. Some girls love to w red skirts.
68. Tom is very l__________, and he never works on his math problems. 69. Giraffes are very c________. We like them very much.
70. — W_______ do you want to join the chess club? — Because I can play chess. 71. He is great, he can find a good (工作) in Beijing. 72. My grandparents live in a small (村庄).
73. My parents (开车) the car to work every day. 74. There is a school _________(表演) this evening. 75. How long does your baby __________(睡觉) every day? 得评卷 分 人 4
得分
八、词形变换 根据题意，用括号中所给单词的适当形式填空。（每小题1分，共5分）
76. Do you brush your (tooth) after dinner?
77. Dogs are very (friend) to us. They can help us a lot.
78. Let’s see the tigers (one). They are my favorite animals.
79. She walks to school every day. It takes (she) 30 minutes from home to school. 80. He usually (ride) his bike to school.
得评卷 分 人 九、阅读理解(二) (每小题2分，共10分)
Rick and Mary are from the United States. Now they are working in Nanjing. They can speak a little Chinese. Every morning they get up very early. Then they go to work by car. They are very busy. They have lunch at the factory. After munch they work again. They finish their work very late. In the evening they take Chinese lessons. They want to talk with Chinese people. They often say, “Chinese people are very friendly.” They like to stay in China and they like to work with Chinese people
81. Where are Rick and Mary from?
82. Where are they working now?
83. Are they very busy?
84. What do they do in the evening?
85. Why do they take Chinese lessons?
得分 评卷人 十、书面表达 （10分）
亲爱的同学，书面表达并不难，只要你认真审题，大胆动笔写，就可得分！
请用英文介绍你的好朋友Bob。以“My good friend” 为题，写一篇50词左右的短文。
提示：1. 我有一个好朋友，他名叫Bob；2. 他喜欢音乐，能歌善舞，还会弹吉他和钢琴，他加入了音乐俱乐部；3. 他每天进行体育锻炼，他还喜欢打篮球；4. 我很喜欢他，我们是好朋友。 要求：必须用上所给的要点, 可适当发挥; 2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，语法正确，书写规范;
My good friend
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参考答案
一、1~4 DCBA 5~10 BCACAB 11~15 ABCBA 16~20 ABCAB 二、21~25 BACBD
三、26~30 CADCC 31~35 BBDCA 36~40 BDBCA 四、41~45 DCBAB 46~50 CADCB
五、51~55 BCADB 56~60 BABCD 六、61~65 BDEAC
七、66. speak 67. wear 68. lazy 69. cute 70. Why
71. job 72. village 73. drive 74. show 75. sleep 单词错误不给分。单词形式错误不给分。与所给答案不同，但正确，给满分。
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八、76. teeth 77. friendly 78. first 79. her 80. rides
单词错误不给分。单词形式错误不给分。与所给答案不同，但正确，给满分。
九．81. The United States(America). 82. In Nanjing. 83. Yes. (Yes, they are.) 84. Take Chinese lessons. 85. They want to talk with Chinese people. 十、 My good friend
I have a good friend. His name is Bob. He likes music. He is good at singing and dancing. He can play the piano and the guitar, too. He joins the music club. He plays sports every day. He also likes to play basketball. I love him (very much). We are good friends.
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